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Problem basically by alyssa!: Is the indirect object always in front of the direct object in a sentence?
For example, “I sold my mother the cake.” The indirect object would be mother and the direct object would be cake. If I said, “I sold the cake to my mother,” would the indirect object still be mother even if it is after the direct object? Thanks in advance.. my teacher is stupid and cannot explain things herself.
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Solution:
Answer by Gretchen S
If you change it to “I sold the cake to my mother,” the sentence no longer has an indirect object; “to my mother” is a prepositional phrase, and “mother” is the object of the preposition “to.”
The meaning is exactly the same, but the grammar parts have a different name/label.
This holds true for all of these examples:
I gave her the gift/I gave the gift to her
Tell me the story/Tell the story to me
He bought her a diamond/He bought a diamond for her
Answer by Ann Kamen
Yes, some (teachers) are just as you say. Anyway,
in your second sentence, you do not have an indirect object, BECAUSE “mother”
is now the object of the PREPOSITION “to,” while “cake” remains the direct
object.
Now, if you want to get really dramatic with something like this:
I gave him all that I had…
You might say,
All that I had I gave him.
In both sentences, HIM is indirect object and ALL is the d.o. (never mind about
I HAD right now–it’s something else–or if you wish, just say,
ALL (emphasis!) I gave him (that so and so)!
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